PE Environmental Qualitative Practice Exam

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• An example of an industrial waste is:
• What is the generally accepted technique for measuring attainments with the National Ambient Air Quality Standard for NOx?
• Which of the following is likely to have a higher concentration in surface water than in groundwater?
• What is the primary exposure route for radon in drinking water?
• What is the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) for Beta particles and photon emitters?
• What condition defines a non-attainment area?
• A preliminary dispersion modeling analysis of emissions from gas-fired engines at a pipeline compressor station reveals that ambient air exceedences occur outside the station's property line. To obtain an air quality permit for the station, the modeling analysis must show no modeled exceedences. What would be the best alternative for eliminating the modeled exceedances?
• A transfer facility allows shipments to be held for up to how many days?
• Treatment, storage, and disposal facilities fall under which subtitle?
• Which contaminant is UNLIKELY to impact the safety of drinking water after a major farm runoff event into a nearby public water system?
• According to NIOSH, an atmosphere is oxygen deficient when the oxygen content is less than:
• Which act is the oldest federal environmental law in the United States and prohibits discharging refuse into or disrupting the flow of any port, harbor, or channel without a license or permit?
• LOEL stands for which term?
• Which method is described as a structured process to gather expert opinions for forecasting?
• Integrated waste management refers to all of the following except:
• In a subadiabatic lapse rate, how does the plume behave and what is the dispersion tendency?
• A Total Maximum Daily Load (TMDL) represents what?
• In laminar flow, friction head loss is proportional to which?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a point source of water pollution?
• Permit-as-a-shield protects a facility from:
• Which organism uses organic material as a carbon source?
• When carcinogens are considered, the EPA generally takes which approach?
• Which criterion does the EPA use to classify hazardous waste?
• OSHA PEL stands for which of the following?
• In an ion exchange system, increasing the hydraulic loading rate (HLR) can be achieved by which measure?
• Which ion is not typically associated with water hardness?
• Under CERCLA, liability may be based on which criterion?
• RCRA Subtitle D addresses solid non-hazardous waste. Which of the following is the correct subtitle for hazardous waste?
• Which statistic would help determine how uncertain the estimate of the average exposure is?
• Which factor is NOT a primary parameter of incinerator efficiency?
• Used oil burned for energy recovery containing less than 50 ppm PCBs is regulated under which regulation?
• Which NOx control technique lowers NOx formation by reducing combustion temperature through exhaust gas recirculation?
• Under LDR program, which group is not generally covered?
• Which statement about indoor air quality calculations under standard guidelines is true?
• Subtitle C is associated with regulation of which category of waste?
• A modification class that is used to modify an existing permit to incorporate groundwater monitoring wells is:
• Bottom ash removal from a combustion chamber may be considered hazardous waste via which rule?
• Under Emission Credit Trading Netting, credits can be earned and used for plant expansion when what condition is met?
• Which option is not one of the four EPA characteristics used to identify hazardous waste?
• Which hazardous waste processes are regulated under RCRA?
• Under the Clean Water Act, what is the purpose of Total Maximum Daily Loads (TMDLs)?
• The _____ approach to pollution control allows a company to bid for the right to discharge a certain pollutant.
• What is the main goal of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
• Leachate is formed due to which circumstance?
• Underground storage tanks are regulated under which program?
• The regulations required in a permit application for a hazardous waste management facility are provided in which regulation?
• Which emitted compounds most often occur as precursors to secondary pollutants?
• What size watershed is the rational method used?
• In a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment, which item is commonly considered non-scope?
• What best describes the primary differences between Subtitle C and Subtitle D?
• Which scenario best justifies using confidence limits in exposure assessment?
• CERCLA primarily provides authority to address releases of hazardous substances and to cleanup what kind of sites?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between CERCLA and the NCP?
• A substance poisonous to humans by interfering with normal body physiology is called which of the following?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between Subtitle C and Subtitle D?
• Integrated waste management components include landfilling, composting, and waste combustion; which of the following is NOT considered a component?
• What is the on-site accumulation limit for Small Quantity Generators?
• Which federal law requires testing of new chemicals for environmental and human health hazards?
• What are the basic elements of the quantitative risk assessment process?
• Which statement best describes THMs in drinking water?
• The best technology available for treating small volumes of many chemicals from a laboratory is which?
• What is the bubble policy for emission reduction credits under the emission trading program?
• Which project management tool is a bar chart that shows the number and type of resources needed throughout a project?
• Under the bubble concept each plant's complex pollution is treated as a whole for the focus of regulation, rather than each point source being licensed for a certain amount of pollutant emission.
• What average particle diameters define the lower and upper particulate matter as a pollutant?
• Under CERCLA, the list of hazardous substances that require reporting is commonly known by what name?
• Which federal law establishes the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) program to regulate point source discharges into waters of the United States?
• Which description best describes hazardous air pollutants (HAPs)?
• Which of the following is NOT an EPA solid waste management initiative focusing on source reduction and recycling?
• Ash from incineration of solid waste must generally be disposed of as what under RCRA?
• When does the material name on the safety data sheet (SDS) have to exactly match the name printed on the material container?
• TLV-C refers to which of the following?
• Under CERCLA, who can the EPA compel to perform cleanup?
• Which statement defines Large Quantity Generators in terms of quantity limits?
• Which federal act regulates the management of hazardous waste in the United States?
• Primary treatment of wastewater targets the removal of what?
• Which statement correctly contrasts RCRA Subtitle C and Subtitle D?
• Small quantity generators can accumulate _____ of hazardous waste at any time.
• What does hydraulic loading rate (HLR) stand for in the context of an ion exchange system?
• Municipal WW sludges must have what minimum percent solids to be accepted for landfill disposal?
• Which permit program regulates discharges into navigable waters under the Clean Water Act?
• Which provision is associated with the Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974?
• Emission Credit Trading Offset enables industrial expansion by what mechanism?
• Which of the following is addressed by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)?
• Regarding the Recommended Weight Limit (RWL), which statement is true?
• The maximum contaminant levels (MCLs) under the Safe Drinking Water Act are designed to protect the safety of which resource?
• A facility's permit classifies the discharge under CFR Title 40, Part 413. After changes, the original facility and a warehouse have different CFR parts. Under which parts are they regulated?
• The amount of soluble lead in SW increases with:
• Solid waste recycling reduces which pollutant emissions?
• If there is acidity in surface water, what happens?
• In an ion exchange system, which action would directly increase the hydraulic loading rate (HLR) if the exchanger bed area cannot be changed?
• Which of the following is true about electrostatic precipitators?
• Which contaminant is removable from stormwater runoff through phytoextraction?
• In the context of environmental permitting, what does NEPA stand for?
• Which municipal solid waste component has the greatest typical heating value?
• What is the most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes?
• Which organism uses CO2 as a carbon source?
• Land Disposal Restrictions (LDR) program generally applies to all of the following except:
• Which two constituents are the most important components of acid rain?
• Which of the following are important factors for determining incinerator efficiency?
• Boilers and furnaces are governed under which Subpart?
• Which option is NOT among EPA's initiatives focusing on source reduction and recycling?
• Under FIFRA, most enforcement is conducted by which entity?
• Which gases are commonly present in confined spaces requiring ventilation at a rate of at least 4 volumes per hour?
• Which list correctly includes examples of universal wastes?
• Which diseases should be of special concern to environmental engineers when designing, operating, or managing a water supply project?
• What is the incremental annual BOD mass loading to a wastewater treatment plant when conventional plumbing fixtures are replaced with water-conserving fixtures?
• Which NOx measurement technique uses chemiluminescence detection?
• In the event of a serious accident or spill during hazardous waste transportation, the transporter must notify which organization?
• The comprehensive used oil recycling program is implemented under which CFR Part?
• The NPDES program is established under which act?
• To achieve a minimum solids content of 15-20% for sludge disposal, municipal sludge must be dewatered to what range?
• Which of the following is an exempt recyclable hazardous waste according to the material?
• Which agency administers the Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response Worker Protection Standard (HAZWOPER)?
• Which NOx control technique is commonly used to reduce NOx formation in internal combustion engines?
• According to the ventilation standard for indoor air quality, which statement correctly identifies sources of contaminants for indoor air requirements?
• Which remediation technology is most effective for removing high concentrations of low-solubility petroleum compounds from containment soil?
• What is the primary difference in the dose–response relationship when comparing carcinogens with noncarcinogens?
• The use and disposal of PCBs are regulated by which act?
• Which disposal method is most commonly used for municipal solid waste in the United States today?
• Which of the following is the correct pairing for heat stress indicators used to monitor safety?
• What is the focus of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (40 CFR)?
• Which statement best describes a derived rule in hazardous waste regulation?
• Does a developed property likely require stormwater control and containment devices if the pre-development flow is 1 m3/s and post-development flow is 1.5 m3/s?
• Bulk quantities of trichloroethane and sodium hydroxide are stored in the same space. If the two chemicals are allowed to mix, what would be the consequences?
• Which option is NOT a valid use of confidence limits in exposure assessment?
• Which technology is commonly used to remove NOx from exhaust and typically uses ammonia as a reducing agent?
• Which by-product group is formed from the reaction of chlorine with organic matter in drinking water?
• Which statement best describes the health effects mechanism of carbon monoxide?
• If a hazard index is greater than one for adults but less than one for children, how should the exposure be characterized?
• A characteristic waste can be made nonhazardous by:
• Open-loop recycling is best described as turning waste into a new product with altered properties. Which option matches this definition?
• Which parameter set is used in determining how to process municipal solid waste? I. particle size II. moisture content III. density IV. heating value
• Under RCRA, which Subpart governs enforcement of corrective actions?
• Which are the appropriate units of measurement for the biological effects of radiation on a human being?
• Which description best captures the purpose of a confidence limit in exposure assessment?
• Under the Safe Drinking Water Act definition, a public water system is defined as having which combination?
• The rules governing the transporters of hazardous waste fall under which subtitle?
• SARA introduced which defense to CERCLA liability?
• The preferred field instrument used in lead-based paint inspections is:
• What respiratory protection equipment is required to enter an abandoned UST to remove sludge contaminated with an unknown hydrocarbon?
• Which list includes wastes from nonspecific sources?
• Which statement INACCURATELY characterizes the health effects of carbon monoxide exposure?
• Under RCRA, the generator classification for a facility that generates 700 gal/month and stores waste onsite for six months is:
• Which statement best reflects the Clean Water Act's treatment of nonpoint source pollution?
• If two investment opportunities have NPVs of $100,000 and $75,000, what is the most nearly the opportunity cost of choosing the higher-NPV project?
• In the EPA's pollution-prevention hierarchy, which option is emphasized first for managing hazardous waste?
• A Phase 1 Environmental Site Assessment on a cattle ranch active from 1900 to 1935 identifies a facility formerly used for treating insect infestation of cattle. What compound would most likely be a potential environmental condition in the soil?
• In evaluating air sample results, confidence limits can be used to determine which of the following?
• Which of the following is an example of a hazardous waste under RCRA Subtitle C?
• The organic components typically found in MSW are:
• In the SDWA definition, which option correctly states the criterion of 15 service connections or 25 people?
• What law makes a purchaser responsible for cleaning up the toxic waste on land he bought?
• What is the primary guiding objective of hazardous waste regulation?
• The criteria restricting land spreading of wastes with high cadmium and PCBs to protect groundwater are found in which subpart?
• Traffic data in metropolitan areas show bimodal patterns with morning and evening commutes. Which plot is most appropriate to visualize this distribution?
• Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are disposed of by which methods?
• What is the primary purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act enacted in 1970?
• Under the EPA's derived-from rule, residues from hazardous waste incineration are regulated as hazardous waste. Which statement is correct?
• Which CFR Part addresses metal finishing prior to 1985?
• The EPA's solid waste management initiatives emphasize which benefits?
• Which subtitle of RCRA addresses hazardous waste handling and disposal?
• What is the purpose of EPCRA (SARA Title III)?
• In the formation of organic compounds, which description corresponds to oxidation?
• Under the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, which substance is NOT a primary contaminant?
• SW-846 is the standard reference for evaluating which type of methods?
• The LDR treatment standards are based on:
• A sludge with high heavy metals content may eliminate land application as a viable disposal option.
• Which environmental medium is most seriously affected by hazardous wastes?
• All of the following are examples of universal wastes, except:
• The hazardous waste management program falls under which subpart?
• Which agency administers Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations?
• Which agency has regulatory authority for radon gas exposure in homes, schools, and other buildings?
• The Delphi Technique is used to:
• The _____ list includes wastes from certain common industrial and manufacturing processes. Because the processes generating these wastes can occur in different sectors of industry, are known as wastes from nonspecific sources.
• What is the primary objective of hazardous waste minimization?
• Which of the following waste is regulated under RCRA Subtitle C hazardous waste regulation?
• What is the primary objective of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)?
• What is the main purpose of stormwater control and containment devices in development projects?
• Which organization provides the most current voluntary standard for meeting AAI requirements and describes the Phase 1 ESA performance?
• The transport of hazardous waste from generation to treatment, storage, or disposal is documented through which system?
• Which agency is the lead for granting section 404 permits?
• A TSDF would like to modify an existing permit application to incorporate design of groundwater monitoring wells; this can be accomplished using:
• Which statement about primary and secondary standards is true?
• All of the following are criteria used by EPA to characterize a hazardous waste, except:
• Regulation of underground storage tanks primarily aims to prevent leaks that could contaminate what?
• Which statement best describes the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)?
• If a facility starts with 200 lbs of material and by year end less than 150 lbs are reclaimed or sent off site, the material can be regulated as what?
• An atmospheric inversion occurs when ambient air temperature is cooler near the ground than at elevation. true or false?
• What is the most appropriate method for treating solid waste containing about 4% pharmaceutical residues?
• National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) regulate emissions of which substances?
• Which of the following is not an example of municipal solid waste (MSW)?
• Regulations restricting land application of metals exist primarily to keep metals out of the human food chain.
• Which statement best describes primary pollutants?
• MSDSs are required under which act?
• The best technology available for treating small volumes of many chemicals from a laboratory is:
• Underground injection control wells are regulated under which environmental statute?
• Which of the following best describes what confidence limits help determine in exposure data?
• Which PCB remediation method involves ex situ desorption by heating soil?
• Which of the following has NO established ANSI standards?
• The philosophy behind hazardous waste regulation under RCRA is oriented toward which concept?
• PCBs are regulated under which act?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes autotrophs from heterotrophs?
• Which item is not typically included on a safety data sheet?
• What is the on-site accumulation limit for Very Small Quantity Generators?
• To measure PCBs or TCE in environmental samples, which technique is typically required?
• The regulation of underground storage tanks is primarily designed around which principle?
• Trihalomethanes (THMs) are
• Heavy metals in wastewater sludge fed to anaerobic digesters could cause:
• Municipal WW sludges must be dewatered before landfill disposal to a minimum solids concentration of 15-20%.
• Which statement best describes soil vapor extraction (SVE)?
• In a wastewater treatment plant, how much BOD is removed during primary treatment?
• What physical data is typically NOT included on a safety data sheet (SDS)?
• If a set of air samples has a wide confidence interval for the mean exposure, what does this indicate?
• The document titled Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste: Physical/Chemical Methods is commonly referred to as:
• Which modeling approach uses a fixed grid to simulate pollutant concentrations over a region?
• A hazardous ash residue from incinerating solvent waste is regulated under the derived-from rule. Which statement is correct?
• Under the 2001 example, failing to reclaim 75% of a returned material leads to it being regulated as what?
• A major rainfall event causes runoff into a public water system. Which contaminant does NOT require added caution?
• Which statement correctly describes the quantity limits for Very Small Quantity Generators?
• Under Netting, credits can be earned by applying improved control technologies and used during expansion if there is no significant net increase in emissions. Which option describes this condition?
• Which incinerator type presents the most difficulty in meeting air emission limits?
• How is the flash point defined?
• What does the acronym NPDES stand for?
• Which factor most strongly contributes to cumulative trauma disorders by causing repetitive strain?
• Solid waste disposal permits are issued by which level of government?
• What is the National Priorities List (NPL) under CERCLA used for?
• What role does the National Contingency Plan (NCP) play in CERCLA?
• Which statement best describes a controlled air incinerator?
• Which statement best defines an atmospheric inversion?
• Particulate emissions (mg/dscm) from combustion units are limited to what value?
• What parameter is used to evaluate the bioconcentration of a toxic contaminant in fish tissue?
• Large quantity generators are defined as those facilities that generate:
• Which pollutant is NOT included in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
• Some substances, when combined, product different toxicity effects than the same substances do when alone. How would the toxicity effects from combined exposure to cigarette smoke and asbestos fibers be characterized?
• Dioxins are
• In used oil specifications, flash point should be below what degF?
• Subtitle D primarily regulates nonhazardous solid waste.
• Which CFR Part addresses metal finishing after 1985?
• In Scenario II, what soil condition is assumed to allow for a soakaway?
• What are the six primary air pollutants as defined by the NAAQS?
• What are the time limits for Small Quantity Generators?
• The presence of heavy metals in dewatered sludge would cause the following concern?
• Which substance is not regulated under NAAQS as a primary pollutant?
• Where are the criteria to designate solid waste disposal facilities and practices that would not pose adverse effects to human health and the environment located?
• Which of the following statements is true about bottom ash with respect to regulatory status?
• TSDF stands for:
• Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), which requirement applies to hazardous wastes?
• Which standard defines attainment status for a region in air quality management?
• Which statement correctly describes the identity of ozone in photochemical smog?
• A grab sample must be collected for stormwater discharge permit applications within how many minutes after discharge?
• Underground injection control wells are permitted under which act?
• What is the maximum annual whole body radiation dose allowed for radiation workers?
• In hospital waste, which category contains needles and scalpels?
• EPA assesses the corrective action program using environmental indicators. All of the following are the indicators, except:
• NEPA paved the way for which federal agency?
• Which of the following makes up the least percentage of landfill volume?
• Which term best describes environmental due diligence findings that indicate the potential presence of hazardous substances on a property due to releases?
• Head loss due to friction is proportional to velocity squared in which regime?
• Which act is commonly referred to as the Superfund law?
• Radon exposure is most clearly associated with which health effect?
• Which performance standard is NOT included among the risk-based performance standards for chemical facilities as established by the DHS?
• Which GPS term refers to a rover receiving position corrections at the time of survey from a GPS base station?
• If a public water supply relies on surface waters, which program must it adopt?
• Which statements about biological hazards are true?
• Which document is used to accompany hazardous waste shipments and track their movement?
• Barometric pressure is synonymous with atmospheric pressure: True or False?
• Petroleum refining wastes fall under the following listed waste:
• How will increasing the cross-sectional area influence the efficiency of a cross current-flow scrubber for air pollution control?
• Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), what is the primary purpose of a manifest in the transportation of hazardous waste?
• What does a superadiabatic lapse rate indicate about plume dispersion?
• In toxicology, the highest level of exposure at which none of the test animals is affected is called which term?
• What is radon gas?
• A rural community water supply contaminated by wastes from a railroad derailment has a hazard index for adults greater than one but less than one for children. How should the exposure be characterized?
• For asbestos remediation projects, NESHAP (40 CFR 61.150) regulates:
• In a biological wastewater treatment process, yield refers to what?
• Which term describes a site that may hinder redevelopment due to contamination?
• During anaerobic decomposition in wastewater treatment, which gas is produced?
• What type of environmental permit is typically required for the construction of facilities that may impact wetlands?
• A worker in a manhole working on electrical copper cables is left unsupervised for 15 minutes and then found floating in wastewater. White foam is seen at the mouth. Should the worker be given bottled water to drink?
• During a wastewater 24-hour sampling protocol, which constituent is collected as a grab sample?
• Secondary air pollutants are produced as a result of reactions that primary air pollutants undergo. Which of the following are included as examples?
• Which statement best describes PELs?
• What is the level of exposure to a toxic chemical that a population can be assumed to endure without appreciable risk resulting?
• Which CFR Part addresses metals treatment and recovery?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of hazardous waste as defined by RCRA?
• Under CERCLA, what is the term used to describe the list of hazardous substances for which releases must be reported?
• A surveyor has collected GPS points in a narrow canyon with heavy vegetation, processing shows high dilution of precision. What is the most likely cause of the error?
• Which item below is a Phase 2 ESA component?
• Which act provides cradle-to-grave regulation of hazardous waste?
• A Phase 1 Environmental Site Assessment would typically identify what type of information about the site's history?
• In landfill design, the witness zone is used to ascertain whether which liner is leaking?
• Hazardous waste combustor efficiency is based on which technology standard?
• Gas chromatography is used to measure which type of compounds?
• The witness zone is the section of a landfill located between which components?
• Point source discharges are regulated under which program?
• Which act addresses groundwater contamination and sets standards for drinking water?
• Which statement describes the quantity limits for Small Quantity Generators?
• Which remediation technique involves heating soil to desorb PCBs, typically performed off-site?
• Post-closure cost estimates are based on projected costs for an entire post-closure period of how many years?
• In GPS terminology, which method provides corrections during observation via a base station to improve accuracy?
• Which of the following is the correct ordering for groundwater risk at historical herbicide manufacturing sites? Atrazine, Dalapon, Endothall, Ethylbenzene
• In a capital budgeting decision, if NPVs are $100,000 and $75,000, which figure represents the opportunity cost of choosing the higher-NPV project?
• Which disposal method involves injecting waste into deep wells?
• CERCLA stands for which act?
• Which security concerns did the Department of Homeland Security identify related to chemicals?
• In a typical sequence of Phase I and Phase II environmental site assessments, what are the general purposes of Phase I and Phase II respectively?
• How does the US EPA characterize hazardous waste?
• Which of the following is NOT typically considered municipal solid waste?
• Which federal agency is responsible for enforcing water quality standards under the Clean Water Act?
• Medical wastes are subjected to:
• In the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) process, what is the purpose of an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)?
• What does the auto ignition temperature describe?
• Which lapse rate is associated with unstable conditions that promote pollutant dispersion?
• What is the minimum time period to retain records of hazardous waste generation and disposal?
• Which of the following is not an approved method of land disposal for hazardous wastes?
• What does the term Superfund refer to in U.S. environmental policy?
• Which act requires safety data sheets for hazardous materials?
• Which of the following is NOT a solid waste?
• Which method uses chemiluminescence to monitor NOx?
• RCRA corrective actions are enforced under:
• Which of the following is an example of a hazardous waste combustor?
• The hazardous waste owner and operator must monitor the aquifer to determine if the leak exceeds the GWPS. Where in the aquifer should monitoring occur?
• Construction debris that is contaminated with hazardous waste constituents can be best disposed off by:
• Alkalinity is defined as
• Which of the following would NOT result in an improved performance of secondary clarifiers?
• What is the primary purpose of Emission Credit Trading (Offset)?
• The land spreading criteria for wastes high in cadmium and PCBs are designed to protect which resource?
• Which commercial modeling package is NOT used to simulate a reverse osmosis plant?
• Leachate formation in landfills is primarily due to rainwater percolating through waste. Which option lists this correctly?
• The CAA Amendments of 1990 introduced large-scale changes to the CAA, including provisions addressing global air pollution. Which topic is addressed in Title III?
• Which item is typically included in a safety data sheet for chemical handling?
• What geophysical measuring technique would be used to assess the downhole vertical continuity of a clay stratum?
• NEPA requires analysis of environmental impacts; which document is typically prepared to analyze potential environmental consequences?
• In environmental compliance, the acronym BACT stands for which of the following?
• Dredged materials are regulated under which regulatory framework?
• Which contaminant is most likely not to threaten groundwater at a site formerly used to manufacture herbicides?
• During which biological growth phase is a conventional activated sludge process designed to operate?
• In GPS accuracy metrics, which term refers to the geometric strength of satellite configuration affecting accuracy?
• Under CERCLA, which entity is typically liable for cleanup costs?
• Which of the following is categorized as a solid waste?
• Which statement about hazardous air pollutants is most accurate?
• What strategy is most consistent with hazardous waste minimization?
• Bioaerosol sampling methods are applicable to all of the following EXCEPT:
• Which agency enforces regulations for the transportation of hazardous waste by highway?
• Which statement about confidence limits in exposure data is true?
• What is the time limit for Large Quantity Generators?
• What is the purpose of a Cumulative Impact Assessment in environmental impact studies?
• What does Threshold Limit Value (TLV) primarily refer to?
• Chronic health effects of human exposure to volatile organic compounds in indoor environments include which of the following?
• Which location is not an allowed site for burning off-specification used oil for energy recovery?
• Which CFR part provides the comprehensive used oil recycling program?
• In Phase 1 ESA, which statement about the final report is true?
• The greatest volume of hazardous waste generated from medical activities at hospitals and health centers is primarily made up of which category?
• What is the National Oil and Hazardous Substance Pollution Contingency Plan (NCP) commonly known as?
• Measured by volume, which pollutant is typically the largest contributor to surface water contamination?
• What comes after a Phase II environmental site assessment in many cases?
• SARA established All Appropriate Inquiry (AAI) to provide protection for which situation?
• An example of a derived rule is:
• Land treatment involves applying waste to the soil surface; which of the following is not a mechanism that takes place?
• The LDR treatment standards are based on which concept?
• Which statement best predicts the perceived sound reduction of acoustic pipe insulation?
• Under RCRA, a generator must obtain a permit to store waste over 90 days.
• Point source discharges are regulated under which program?
• Used oil is hazardous waste if it contains more than 1000 ppm of total halogens.
• Which step in risk characterization is often focused on describing the probability and severity of adverse effects in exposed populations?
• Which permit is commonly required for discharging pollutants into waters of the United States?
• According to EPA protocol, during a wastewater 24-hour composite sampling event, what must be taken as a grab sample?
• The solid waste program falls under which Subpart?
• The hazardous waste listings consist of all of the following except:
• Why has the EPA shifted toward basin-wide management for surface waters?
• Which of the following is an example of an inherently waste-like material?
• What are the primary nuisance components of photochemical smog?
• In risk assessment, which component describes the dose-response relationship?
• The permit application for a TSDF can be submitted using the prescribed form:
• In the used oil specifications, which parameter is tested to assess flammability?
• The level below which no ill effects are observed is called which term?
• Which of the following is not a corrosion protection measure?
• Which statement is true about a Total Maximum Daily Load (TMDL)?
• All of the following are examples of source reduction, except:
• Which process is used to remove sulfur oxides from exhaust streams?
• Off-specification used oil may be burned for energy recovery in all of the following locations, except:
• A brownfield site is best described as which of the following?
• What microbiological contaminant is most resistant to chlorine disinfection?
• If the surrounding air cools at the same rate as the plume, what is the expected tendency of the plume?
• Which pollutant is the major target for controlling ground-level ozone formation?
• A reference dose is the level of toxic exposure...
• Which option is NOT a geophysical method typically used to sense hazardous waste underground?
• In Scenario I of the wastewater evaluation, which element is assumed not feasible?
• Under RCRA, which requirement involves maintaining records of the creation, transfer, and disposal of hazardous wastes?
• Which of the following statements about radiation exposure is FALSE?
• All universal waste handlers may not accumulate universal waste for a period over:
• Which datum is used by the GPS constellation to provide x, y, and z coordinates?
• Which set of activities is commonly included in a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment?
• Which geophysical methods are commonly used to sense hazardous waste underground?
• Hardness is caused by polyvalent metallic cations such as
• The 6-nines rule in incinerators and boilers refers to which level of emission reduction?
• Which of the following is not a recognized TLV designation?
• Under the Safe Drinking Water Act, what is the primary purpose of Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs)?
• All of the following are the exempt recyclable hazardous wastes, except:
• Under FIFRA, which entity is primarily responsible for enforcement?
• In a cross current-flow scrubber, what happens to gas velocity and efficiency when the cross-sectional area increases?
• Which stage of the Environmental Impact Assessment process involves the identification of potential environmental impacts and their significance?
• Which parameter most directly determines the specific growth rate of bacteria in a wastewater treatment plant?
• All of the following are exclusions from the definition of hazardous waste except:
• Hazardous air pollutants are defined as those known or suspected to cause cancer or other serious health effects.
• Who can be held liable for the cleanup costs of a hazardous waste site under CERCLA?
• Which federal law is primarily responsible for regulating the emission of air pollutants from stationary sources in the United States?
• Which item is a component of Phase 1 Environmental Site Assessment?
• What is the traditional approach employed by the EPA for air pollution control?
• Which option defines the 'lower and upper flexible membrane liners' in a landfill design?
• The unit mg/dscm is used to express the concentration of which in emissions?
• Which set of statements about heat and cold stress is true? I. II. III. IV. V.
• An example of physical treatment of a waste is:
• Which statement about OSHA PELs is correct?
• Which standard is designed for occupational health and safety management systems?
• Where can the EPA's federal procurement guidelines for products manufactured from recycled materials be found?
• Rules regarding the transportation of hazardous waste from the point of origin to the ultimate disposal site are governed by which agency?
• The record retention period for hazardous waste records is at least how many years?
• In hydrogen sulfide poisoning, which action is correct?
• Which statements about cumulative trauma disorders are true? I. risk of CTDs is associated with highly repetitive use of the same body part. II. damage from CTDs is usually noticed by workers within 24 hours of the activity. III. CTDs may affect tendons, tendon sheaths, soft tissue, nerves, bones, and spinal vertebrae. IV. high repetitiveness is defined as a cycle time of less than one minute. V. leaning over a workbench and resting the forearm on a hard edge or surface may lead to carpal tunnel.
• Which entities enforce the Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899?
• A water sample has a TDS concentration of 425 mg/L and a specific conductivity of 32 µS. Which statement best describes the solids?
• RCRA enforcement program is implemented by:
• Which of the following is NOT a stated purpose of EPCRA?
• A transfer facility is described as a site consisting of loading docks and storage areas where shipments can be held for up to how many days?
• Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasures (SPCC) regulations established spill prevention procedures for:
• Construction debris contaminated with hazardous waste is best disposed by which method?
• An example of a Permit-by-Rule facility is:
• What is the policy goal of emissions trading credits (ERCs) in terms of plant emissions?
• Which form is used for submitting a TSDF permit application?
• In the evaluated wastewater scenarios, which pairing correctly assigns Scenario I and Scenario II options?
• To determine whether a leak exceeds GWPS, monitoring should be performed at which part of the aquifer?
• The primary planning, regulating, and implementing entities for nonhazardous solid waste management (e.g., household garbage) are managed by which level of government?
• The TLV-STEL (Threshold Limit Value-Short-Term Exposure Limit) corresponds to which exposure duration?
• Which is not a goal of RCRA?
• Primary wastewater treatment targets the removal of what?
• Which statement correctly defines TLV-TWA (Threshold Limit Value - Time-Weighted Average)?
• What are the time limits for Very Small Quantity Generators?
• What is the on-site accumulation limit for Large Quantity Generators?
• If waste oil from automobiles is burned in power plants, this is an example of:
• Which phrase describes the presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance on a property under conditions that indicate a release or threat of a release?
• What is the primary purpose of a detention basin in stormwater management?
• Which activity is typical of a Phase II Environmental Site Assessment?
• What federal agency oversees the implementation of the National Contingency Plan (NCP)?
• What size watershed is the NCRS Curve Number method used?
• Transport of microorganisms to groundwater depends mostly on:
• What is the most commonly used method of solid waste disposal?
• Which statement accurately describes viruses?
• Which air quality modeling technique is commonly used to assess dispersion from a single point source?
• High molecular weight and strongly hydrophobic organic contaminants partition into soils containing which component?
• SQGs transporting hazardous waste for off-site treatment, storage, or disposal over distances greater than 200 miles may accumulate waste for up to how many days?
• In which flow regime is friction head loss proportional to velocity rather than velocity squared?
• Who typically owns a public water supply system?
• Enhancing natural attenuation of tetrachloroethene contaminated sites can be achieved by introducing which compound?
• According to common engineering formulas, friction head loss is sometimes proportional to velocity rather than velocity squared in which case?
• Plastic bottles recycled into drainage pipes illustrate which recycling type?
• Which stage of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process involves public participation and the gathering of input?
• Radon exposure is associated with which health effect?
• Under the Clean Water Act of 1972, which action is unlawful without a permit?
• The easiest, most cost effective and most widely used technique in solid waste management is:
• Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), what term is commonly used to describe parties responsible for the release of hazardous substances into the environment?
• According to the EPA, leaking tanks and pipes may be repaired as long as the repairs meet industry codes and standards for USTs. Which organization publishes such codes and standards?
• Which compound is a chemical component of the smoke tubes used in ventilation studies?
• Which code is NOT relevant to safety management systems?